Zionists keep saying Israel “bought” the Palestinian’s land when the ownership was less than 5% prior to 1948. If Israel did indeed purchase majority of Palestinian land, why did the zionist state pass laws to confiscate Palestinian property?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 16:21
What you people who ask these questions lack is the understanding that you support colonization, not because you agree with it but because you haven't studied history, nor have you tried. You simply don't know better, like a child smearing sauce on her clean shirt.
Turkey fell as a colonial power before WWII and we took over the land that had been confiscated from us by the Roman Colonialists, then the Syrian Colonists, then the Turkish Colonists and then the British and French Colonists. We were the first modern people to be colonized and we fought it for 2000 years.
Then as every existing Middle Eastern State today, we declared our independence in the wake of WWI&WWII. You don't recognize our independence, but you take for granted the independence of Jordan, Egypt, Iraq, Lebanon, Syria, etc as being totally legitimate.
You overestimate the term bought. 95% of the land was under the control of the Turkish Ottoman Colonists. We purchased pieces of the 5%, and it was largely from Arabs holding titles they had stolen.
You see the Middle East through a Western racially motivated lense, which does not exist in the Middle East and which gives you literally zero foundation to interpret a conflict other and much older than yours.
You're too ignorant to realize not all of the Middle East belongs to Muslim marauders, bc you never knew anyone existed before them, and you don't believe anyone is entitled to claim what was stolen from them.
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